Ok - so bare with me on this one I promise I’m not going mad - but this idea has got my thought juices flowing, so thought I would post it here :)

I’ve been reading 1 Peter recently; a top book by all accounts. However, one part of it has really intrigued me and that is the passage in 1 Peter 3:18-22:

For Christ died for sins once for all, the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God. He was put to death in the body but made alive by the Spirit, through whom also he went and preached to the spirits in prison who disobeyed long ago when God waited patiently in the days of Noah while the ark was being built. continued…

I was reading this passage in my NIV study bible and they had some interesting ideas about the interpretation of this passage. There are three viewpoints described here:

  • This passage is meaning that the pre-incarnate Christ went and preached through Noah to the wiked generation of that time.
  • This passage is meaning that Christ went to the place of the dead in the time between his death and resurrection and preached to spirits of Noah’s wiked contemporaries.
  • This passgage is meaning that Christ went to the place where fallen angels are incarcerated in the time between his death and resurrection and preached to the angels who left their proper state and married human women in Genesis 6.

Hold the phone - angels can do that?

So I followed the trail into Genesis 6 to find the following verses:

When men began to increase in number on the earth and daughters were born to them, the sons of God saw that the daughters of men were beautiful, and they married any of them they chose.

The interesting phrase used here is ’sons of God’ in verse 2. Some believe that this does indeed refer to angels as the same phrase is used in Job 1:6 and Job 2:1. However some people believe that the intermarriage is just impossible if it implies angels and this is backed up by the term ’sons of God’ being used to refer to humans in other passages such as Deuteronomy 14:1 or 1 John 3:1-2. ‘Sons of God’ could simply imply godly men, i.e. not born from the wiked line of Cain.

To me, the most plausible explanation is that the godly men (and by this we probably mean decendants of Abel) started marrying ‘any of them’ and this proabably does not refer to angels. However, there is no way for us to really know this - especially as our huge God often does the last thing you expect. So I’m probably interpretting this in the most simple way possible and am open to correction… :) For now I am content with my limited understanding - does anyone else have any thoughts on the matter?